The No Religious Test Clause of the US Constitution (Article VI, paragraph 3) states that "no religious test shall ever be required as a qualification to any office or public trust under the United States."
So I'm curious. If it's not specifically a religious test, but it is a special test selectively applied on the basis of religious belief...does that cross that line into unconstitutionality?
I'm neither a lawyer nor a Constitutional scholar, so I can't say with any certainty. But I can certainly say it looks suspiciously like.
What do you think?